Wednesday, September 18, 2013

Avicenna Responds

Ah. Avicenna has engaged with the criticism of his position. Excellent. This should be interesting and fun.

Credentialism Questioned: Avicenna had made statements which implied that he was a doctor. Implied? Not strong enough. Here’s what he actually said:
” That’s why I am a doctor. “
Now he says this:
” See, I respected his questions. I gave honest answers and if you remember there was a commentator who didn’t understand how we as atheists validate our moral choices.

However he has not respected mine.

I am not a doctor. YET. When I am one you will be informed. .”

Good. I’ll inform him when I am one, too. In the meantime I will refrain from calling myself a doctor.

Now that we have straightened out the credentials, we can move on. He says,
” You can’t disprove the existence of wizards either.”

I’m not the one trying to do that. It is solely his job to provide empirical proof for his system of belief and worldview.
” Currently he hides behind the Big Bang but honestly do you really think that when science solves that little conundrum he will be there? “

This only proves his Scientism and his lack of comprehension that science – being a material only pursuit – cannot “solve” any conundrum which involves a non-material existence. His faith is touching but misplaced: there are myriad valid questions that science cannot resolve.
” Ah yes. The notion that empirical science shouldn’t be allowed to be applied to gods because religious people “say” so.”

Actually Karl Popper (agnostic) introduced the logic of scientific limitations in his book, “The Logic of Scientific Discovery”, which delineates the demarcation between the material pursuits which science can address, and the types of pursuits where science is impotent. Should Avicenna wish to dispute Popper’s logic, then he should do so. No attempt so far has proven satisfactory, however. Avicenna could be the first.
” There is no evidence anywhere to suggest the existence of any gods. Let alone the particular one we call Jehovah/Yahweh/Allah. These aren’t even hypothesis, these are superstition. No different from the laughable notion that you can somehow influence a thunderstorm or placate a volcano.”
A complete falsehood, borne of ignorance. He apparently has made no attempt to even engage actual theism, its propositions, deductions and evidence; he merely rejects it outright in ignorance of the propositions which are made – and not refuted.

Next he quotes himself, and declares it “logical”. His evidence for his logic is this:
” The above is a logical statement. We have no evidence for any gods. Maybe one day there may be evidence for some but as of now there is none. To believe in something that there is no evidence for is pretty “stupid”.

There most certainly is evidence, including physical and deductive, not to mention anecdotal (which we will ignore). To declare that “there is no evidence” is merely an extension of ignorance, stated emphatically. He was challenged in the earlier critique, and he is now challenged again:

First: disprove, empirically and categorically, the original claims of the singularity at Lourdes.

Second: disprove, empirically and categorically, the necessity of a non-material agent with the capability of creating a rule-based universe.

If he declines to do so, then he will have shown that he cannot defend his Atheism except by declaring falsely that there is no evidence, when he has been shown both physical and deductive evidence for him to disprove.

The following exchange permanently displays the type of rationalizing which Avicenna uses:

My original challenge to him:
” Contrary to his denial of evidence, there is evidence for the existence of a creating agent; but his categorical denial places Avicenna into the position of denial of existing evidence and disciplined arguments. So he either is ignoring them or is ignorant of them. Either way, he has taken a false position which declares categorically true. And he further Poisons the Well by starting with a False Analogy, that of the unicorn, a favorite dodge of Atheists who are unused to more sophisticated argumentation.”
His response:
”Philosophy is not an argument against empirical science.

Existing evidence? Oh I assume it’s the prime mover nonsense. Well the Universe was not created for us. It seems awfully ginormous. It’s like suggesting cars exist solely to kill insects.”

Please take some time to reread his response "argument":
(a) Philosophy is somehow trumped by science. Evidence: What scientific study proves this? Where is the empirical testing which has been done, the peer review, the data, which shows conclusively that science cannot be argued philosophically? (Every scientific conclusion is a philosophical interpretation of the data). And further, show that there is no Philosophy of Science, which is the primary validation for science. And show that science can exist without the philosophical help of mathematics and logic, both of which precede empiricism by thousands of years; are they erroneously deemed precursors and absolute necessities for the existence of Science? If so why? Details, please.

How, exactly, will empirical testing be applied to non-material subjects? How, exactly, is the prime mover argument “nonsense”? How, exactly does “seeming ginormous” have anything to do with a non-material agent preceding the existence of the material universe? How does his silly analogy regarding cars and bugs apply to the question at hand?

(b) Demonstrate empirically the point in the thomasian arguments at which science declares the argument a failure based on empirical testing. Please don't bother claiming that this demand is absurd; it follows your scientism directly and rejects your dismissive philosophy in particular: if philosophy is rejected, then your philosophy is rejected, especially since it involves a False Analogy which is totally not applicable to the subject at hand. You must use the science which you insist is supreme, if you are to support your dismissal with any actual evidence (data).

Please, Avicenna, answer each and every one of these questions directly and without obfuscating false analogies or false philosophies. Use science.

He follows, ironically, with the philosophical unicorn analogy, rather than empirical findings:
” And how dare you sir! The Unicorn is the National Animal Of Scotland.

It’s not sophisticated as an argument because it doesn’t need to be. It’s an elegant argument. A unicorn is infinitely more believable than a god. One’s an entity of unimaginable power who treats humans as his personal action figures, making them dance for his amusement. The other’s a horse that comes to a point. Honestly? If you think a unicorn is LESS believable than the gods then you clearly have no idea of what sophistication is.”

First, the subject is whether he can support his Atheism using his empiricism. Can he disprove the evidence which is presented or will he only ridicule it? The unicorn caper is a standard dodge which fails for the following reason: he can empirically disprove neither the unicorn nor the pre-existence of a non-material agent. So he makes the comparison with a unicorn as if that is a proper analog, deserving of ridicule. Just the slightest analysis would have shown him that the unicorn proposition would leave physical evidence, which could be properly analyzed, empirically; but there is none to analyze. However, the deity proposition actually has left physical evidence, so he denies the existence of the evidence in order to avoid having to analyze it and disprove it (he cannot, it has not been done in the more than a century since it occurred). Instead he engages in weak-kneed philosophy - which he denigrated - rather than science.

He continues:
” Then he proceeds with this absurdity:

”Because we created untouchable gods by accident.”

“No. I wrote about how we created an entire mythos of an untouchable god. Kal-El. Superman as he is known in the common parlance. Where we made him so powerful we couldn’t put him in any risk so his stories stopped being gripping. You know Batman is going to win because he is Batman but you know he is weak and fragile.

Superman is practically indestructible and any solution is going to involve punching things. It’s why we like Batman more than Superman despite Superman speaking to ideals that we hold more dear.
I used Superman to show power creep.”

Really? Comic books as your argument? There is no science here, Avi; none. Nor is there any bearing on the pre-existence of a non-material agent with the capability of causing the existence of the material universe.

I understand the influence comic books have had on you. How about some of your vaunted science? If scientism is your belief system, then where, exactly and when, exactly do you plan to use empiricism to disprove the evidence you have been given?
”Jehovah in Judges 1:19 cannot beat Iron Chariots. Power Creep eventually made him “All Powerful”.”
I do so love it when an Atheist pretends to interpret the bible. Read Judges 1:20. Sheesh.

More to the point, the argument for a pre-existing non-material agent has nothing to do with the bible, the Qu’ran, or any other religious book. It is a completely material-based deduction, which uses modern scientific theory as its foundation, and the discipline of deductive logic as its process. It cannot be defeated by derisive false analogies or attacks on ecclesiastic documents of any kind.

My next charge to him was this:
” his is an assertion with zero back-up. This is a Just So Story, and it presages his use of fantasy stories which he presents as fact.”
His counter argument is this:

”I think this is the very definition of religious belief.
It’s a bad sign when you have shot apart your entire belief system yourself.”

Avicenna’s retort has neither any bearing on the charge against his illogic, nor does it have any evidence for its own veracity, nor does it provide any support for his meme that there is no evidence: it is yet another statement of blind belief without evidence, empirical or deductive, for support.

The facts are these: he has been given an opportunity to engage his Scientistic empirical beliefs in defense of his Atheism, and he has not; instead, he continues to avoid any acceptance that there exists evidence which must be refuted empirically if Atheism is actually true. And he wraps up (prematurely as it happens) with his own personally derived definition of “religious belief” (which is not the subject at all), and the incredible conclusion that he has won the discussion, even without a single shred of scientific data, or material evidence, much less disciplined deduction, given in his favor. Empirical science is impotent in the arenas where Avicenna thinks he can invoke it. And invoking it without even using it to produce the evidence demanded of it is completely irrational. Not to mention futile.

But I suspect that Avicenna knows all this deep down inside. His premature declaration of success-via-personal-definition is a reminder of how Nixon got the USA out of the Democrats’ Viet Nam debacle: He declared, “We WIN, Come Home Immediately”, and turned Viet Nam over to the Communists as Americans barely escaped with their skins.

Avicenna cannot provide any SCIENTIFIC DATA which supports a single one of his blind assertions, or he would have done so. So his Scientism is nothing more than an affectation, rather than a practical source of knowledge in support of his worldview. He relies entirely on false analogy and other rhetorical fallacy for his defense.

40 comments:

Al said...

I read an article by Marcelo Glaiser from this link:

http://www.npr.org/blogs/13.7/2013/03/26/175352714/the-origin-of-the-universe-from-nothing-everything

"According to modern science, the origin of the universe is part of cosmology. In trying to describe a creation process through scientific language we encounter a serious challenge: if every effect results from a cause, we can follow the chain of causation backwards in time until we arrive at the First Cause. But what caused this cause? Aristotle, for one, used some kind of divine entity to solve this conundrum, the Unmoved Mover, the one that can cause without having been caused. Very convenient, but not scientifically satisfying."

Why do materialists, people like him cling so strongly to materialism? Is it a blindness?

Anonymous said...

Hey, check out this interesting article from yahoo. It talks about the theism of David Hume and Sartre, and even links to your blog

http://voices.yahoo.com/icons-atheism-no-more-12313624.html?cat=37

Luke said...

Is there a reason you don't think the burden of proof lies with those making the claim that god(s) exist? You seem to ask for a lot of disproofs but bring little actual testable evidence to the table.

John said...

Stan,I'm starting to believe that atheists hate logic.On second thought,it would make a great bumper sticker.

” You can’t disprove the existence of wizards either.”

Of course,the atheists' favorite strawman argument.It's either wizards,dragons,santa claus or unicorns.
Here's what every atheist should ask themselves before they start with this premise.Are there any God-believeing sane,rational and credible adults who claim to believe in wizards,unicorns,etc.?
Are there any God-believeing scientists and philosophers who claim to have evidence for the existence of santa,unicorns,etc,?
Unless the answers for the above are yes,then only will this argument have some merit.
But that's not the case,and millions of sane,honest,rational and intelligent adults believe in God and claimed to have had positive life changing experiences because of their belief in God but the same can't be said for santa,wizards and unicorns.

It makes you wonder if atheists are actually insane , never mind their contempt for logic.

John said...

Avicenna says” The above is a logical statement. We have no evidence for any gods. Maybe one day there may be evidence for some but as of now there is none. To believe in something that there is no evidence for is pretty “stupid”.

Here's what every atheist cannot grasp.We don't need to prove empirically the existence of God to refute philisophical materialism.
As has said philosopher/psychologist/physician William James: to refute the law that all crows are black,it is enough to find one white crow.

The evidence (published in peer reviewed journals)that we have for telepathy,psychic phenomena,remote viewing and even NDEs are all "white crows" refuting the claim that materialism is all there is.

Steven Satak said...

@Al: it's not blindness, but a willful closing of the eyes. We know what they are denying, we know why they are denying it, but some folks think that if you shout loud enough and spend enough money, that sort of nonsense can be passed as 'reason'. Forever.

Given man's incorrigible nature, perhaps it can. The habit of shutting one's eyes, as it were, has been a common tactic down through history. Atheists have no corner on the market, but they are more noticeable because they claim their blindness to be the product of a genuine lack of light.

Russell said...

I keep seeing this sort of argument happen with the materialists.

1) x is not y.
2) x doesn't exist.
3) But we could say x is kinda like y.
4) Therefore, y doesn't exist.

It's a bait and switch argument, and a weak one at that.

Stan said...

Luke,
You say, 'X' can be deduced in a valid and grounded, disciplined manner to be the case.

I say, X is false.

You say, "Why so?"

I say "I don't have to tell you; it's your burden of proof".

That is irrational.

If a party rejects an argument, it is his intellectual obligation to provide the reasons he rejects the argument, including the precise reasons that the argument is false.

Atheists refuse to do that, using the following: You have the Burden of Proof. You have not proven X. I need give no reasons.

The usual cause for this denialism on the part of Atheists is that they actually have no reason for rejecting either deductions or material evidence which is given to them. So denialism is essential, and it takes the form of denying that they have any responsibility for providing reasoning for their rejections, as well as providing actual disciplined, deductive evidence, or material empirical evidenc for support of their belief system. Denialism is all they have.

Stan said...

I should add that the reason for not giving any reasoning for rejecting a premise is indicative of emotional attachment to an ideology which cannot withstand intellectual attack, but which is emotionally necessary for the worldview of the denialist.

If you read this blog at all, you know what the evidence is for Atheist attachment to freedom from morality and freedom from absolutes including the restrictions of logic.

Complete freedom from these releases the Atheist into personal worlds of moral self-indulgence in personal proclivity for moral theory, and intellectual self-indulgence in personally-derived irrational processes.

In other words, anarchic irrationality.

Hence, it need make no sense to the rational observer that the Atheist demands material evidence, yet provides none of his own; that the Atheist rejects without giving reasons or reasoning; that despite this the Atheist considers himself to be elite.

Stan said...

Russell,
I like that.

Rod said...

Whether you think Him a monster or not, Creator God does exist. Deal with it!

An atheist stated, “god could have created a universe that didn't require death and punishment,”

The same atheist asked, “Have atheists been brought into existence just so God could watch them burn forever?”

One of the reasons that God allows suffering, pain, trials etc. is to separate the wheat from the chaff.


. Pain takes those who hunger and thirst for righteousness and draws them closer and closer to God.

. Pain takes those who are against God and drives them deeper and deeper into their state of rebellion.

Something to remember, the importance of which is impossible to underestimate is that rebelling against your Creator may feel brave and noble to you. The problem is - that rebellion does not take place in the absence of consequence. Rejecting God carries negative consequences during our time on earth AND in the next stage of life.

. The consequences of denying God while on earth are meant to be CORRECTIVE in nature. Physical, spiritual and emotional pain are meant to be a warning that something is wrong; that something needs to change.

. The consequence of denying our Creator that we will experience after death has nothing to do with correction.

If you want to follow along, then turn to 2nd Thessalonians 1:3-10. Notice in verses 8,9 that:
. The punishment for those who are against God is not corrective in nature. It’s punitive.

. The punishment for those who are against God is not meant to be transforming. It's retributive.

. The punishment that God is going to hand out is “eternal destruction away from the presence of the Lord.”

. These people will be forever separated from anything good.

. This is what is promised by God for all those who refuse to know God and who refuse to obey the gospel of Jesus the Christ.

God doesn’t care one bit whether you like this or not. Call Him a monster if you want. The fact is, there is going to be hell to pay for those who reject, deny and rebel against their Creator.

Some people have a mental picture of God that simply doesn’t allow for Justice to be carried out. These people say that Jesus is ONLY a God of love. They ignore the fact that Creator God is also a God of justice.

Unknown said...

Stan, I must commend you on your bulldog-like dedication to debating atheists. I've seen no one that has the understanding of logic like this.

Out of curiosity, would you say that Atheism is a fundamentally lazy philosophy? The philosopher rejects the concept of a higher concrete entity than the human intellect, and becomes free to engage in any desired personal proclivities. It ignores any compulsions, other than those the person wants to act upon, and thus does not have any reason to expand its understanding of reality.

As a inverse, could it be said that theists have an obligation to seek a further understanding of the deity: because the philosophical statement of their being a creator carries a packet of other tertiary requesits that require examination?

Stan said...

Atheists do become intellectually lazy, but they first becomes enamored of their perception of their own superior thought process and morality. They create both of those things for their own use and to match outcomes which they find congenial. In classical terms, they rationalize both their mental processing and their morals. But they reject classical absolutes.

The purpose of Atheism is self-indulgence of the ego, and freedom from all constraints (except legal, of course).

"[I suppose the reason] we all jumped at the Origin [Origin of Species] was because the idea of God interfered with our sexual mores.”
Sir Julian Huxley

Stan said...

I retract the above quote attributed to Julian Huxley; apparently it is fraudulent. I have seen it many places, but it appears to have been debunked.

Luke said...

"You say, 'X' can be deduced in a valid and grounded, disciplined manner to be the case.

I say, X is false.

You say, "Why so?"

I say "I don't have to tell you; it's your burden of proof".

That is irrational."

Deduction only works if the premises of the logic are actually true, and those who are atheists disagree with the premesis theists postulate as true in the first place.

If x then y

X

Therefore y

But if you don't agree with "if x then y" in the first place because you can point to an example of if x then z the whole thing falls apart. I don't know many atheist debaters who won't point to a formal logical flaw or directly contravening evidence to the central proposition in question. You may not be looking very hard if you haven't found one who will.

You are asserting that there is a creator god. You have yet to provide empirical, repeatable, testable evidence of this proposition that isn't flawed. If you can't provide evidence for a proposition you haven't met the burden of proof.

You appear stuck on accusing atheists of hedonism which not only is demonstrably untrue, as atheists appear to be simply people like the rest of us who don't believe in a god or gods, but doesn't actually defend the central argument of existence which is evidence to demonstrate it.

All the evidences thus far presented appear to be logically flawed, or do not require a supernatural explanation when a mundane one will suffice.

Perhaps you could present me with a formal argument that you think demonstrates the existence of a god or gods without a logical flaw inherent to it. I've been waiting for one for a while now and haven't found one yet.

I am a robot said...

I think Rod's post provides a fair insight into which side is making an actual claim here.

Russell said...

Luke,

Start with Aquinas, once you understand his position, you'll understand a logical argument for God. Note, I'm not saying you need to believe him, or accept the argument, but only to understand.

After that, well, there's a lot of Christian thinkers working off his opus over the last seven hundred years, the Thomists being the obvious choice for further studies.

Aqium said...

"Start with Aquinas, once you understand his position, you'll understand a logical argument for God."

Then read David Hume and Immanuel Kant and learn about quantum physics and you'll understand why the word games of Aquinas do not describe reality.

Luke said...

I've looked at Aquinas and I've also looked at the demolition by subsequent philosophers.

A logical argument for god is only as good as its premises. And those are found wanting. An empirical, demonstrable, repeatable test for god would impress me and convert me.

And all this only really applies to a generic universe creator god, not a specific one of a particular religious affiliation.

Stan said...

Aqium,
David Hume was a materialist, which is a failed ideology because it cannot demonstrate its own premises materially, which then leaves it without premises.

Luke,
It is a logical Category Error Fallacy to demand an empirical (material) proof for a non-material entity. Empiricism is highly limited under its own rules; it can address only those questions which involve material existence. There can be no empirical material experiments which could rationally be expected to reveal anything at all regarding non-material subjects. That is why Scientism is a false ideology: it cannot answer many of the questions which concern mankind, so it is not a source of incorrigible truth, much less wisdom.

Further, "specific" western religions all begin with the same premise: that there was, as you put it, a "universe creator", which as an agent had sufficient capability to create a rule-based universe.

Of course if you have empirical evidence to the contrary, feel free to provide it. You would be the first to do so.

And finally, there actually is material evidence for you to refute empirically, experimentally, falsifiably but not falsified, and peer reviewed: the miracle at Lourdes, for example. When you refute that one empirically, experimentally, etc, you also would be the first to do so. So your opportunities are great to use your empiricism in defense of your belief system by providing material data which refutes theist claims. It will be interesting to see your results.

Stan said...

"Deduction only works if the premises of the logic are actually true, and those who are atheists disagree with the premesis theists postulate as true in the first place."

No Atheist visiting here in the past five years has demonstrated any ability to challenge the premises given in the Challenges to Atheists in the sidebar on the right column of this blog.

"If x then y

X

Therefore y"


This is merely modus ponens. Perhaps you will use it to demonstrate the logical necessity of Atheism?

"But if you don't agree with "if x then y" in the first place because you can point to an example of if x then z the whole thing falls apart."

Proving that "if x then z" does not disprove "if x then y", (a)if the second ponens is false; it must be proven; and (b) it also doesn't disprove the first ponens if y and z are congruent sufficiently.

So "the whole thing does NOT automatically fall apart" as you claim. That is why Atheists must prove that their rejections are valid, using the actual VALID rules of deductive logic, including providing grounded premises and demonstrating coherence as well as proper format.

"I don't know many atheist debaters who won't point to a formal logical flaw or directly contravening evidence to the central proposition in question."

Then point them directly to the Challenges to Atheists in the right hand column so that they might enlighten all of us.

You may not be looking very hard if you haven't found one who will.

I don't look at all; they come here via google and Atheist websites populated with Atheists who deride but cannot engage with logical defense of their own worldview.

Do you, for example, have a disciplined deduction in support of the logical necessity for Atheism which you would care to share with us? Please feel free to do so. You would be the first to do so.

Russell said...

Luke,

"Demolished"? No. His arguments have been challenged, defended, argued against and for, expanded, ignored, misunderstood, gone in and out of vogue for 700 years. The pedigree alone should give you a pause, at the very least, concerning the force of his arguments.

I've read a handful of counter arguments, mostly from the latest crop of New Atheists such as Dawkins, that while claiming to demolish Aquinas, did nothing more than show their ignorance of his arguments.

Second, as Stan pointed out, you are demanding an immaterial being with his own agenda and will to appear in a material testing scenario. A category error.

Besides the Bible has laid out how to find God through prayer, a humble heart and contrite spirit. Have you tried that? It has worked miracles for many.

"And all this only really applies to a generic universe creator god, not a specific one of a particular religious affiliation."

That's what you asked for, "Perhaps you could present me with a formal argument that you think demonstrates the existence of a god or gods without a logical flaw inherent to it." You said nothing about a particular religious affiliation.

Quick question, what caused the First Cause?

Aquim,

Aquinas took a metaphysical approach, nothing to do with radical skepticism, the counter to that, or physical laws concerning the behavior of subatomic particles. Amusing, too, that you'd pick Kant, since his more pragmatic approach started with assuming that with the lack of irrefutable evidence of God, it would be best to assume he exists, otherwise one would be on the path to Nihilism.

Materialist said...

Stan, how can you differentiate an objective non-material existence from a subjective non-material existence? All non-material things we agree exist are either material or subjective, human dependent non-material things. Merely claiming that the non-material can exist without humans does not prove that it does. The belief in a non-material entity is based on this fallacy, as if not being able to disprove this entity empirically was proof it does exist.

Steven Satak said...

@Materialist: and I thought Solipsism was dead.

Materialist said...

If someone considers Solipsism seriously here, that would be you Steven. As someone who rejects Materialism, it means you put your own subjective non-material existence on a higher pedestal than the material world. You believe that you could exist without your material body, which is an unsupported assertion flowing from your faulty epistemology based on the subjective non-material world that exists in your head. Your mind is something that exists a priori, without the material world being needed, so it's possible for you to believe that Solipsim is correct: we may all be fictitious characters fed to your consciousness through some undefined means, be it material or not. You also believe that your mind will survive the death of its companion material body, right? Therefore, you're the one who believes that this material body that you have may be just an illusion, along with the rest of the material world you live in.

On Materialism, the assumption is that the material world is real and serves as a basis for what exists or not. Starting from that material world, we can define this thing we call a 'mind' in a very different way than your Solipsism, oops sorry [insert your worldview here], would ever allow. Minds are what these material things we call humans have. They use it to represent the world around them conceptually in order to make decisions, predictions and all sort of mental tasks that stem from this desire to understand the real material world that feeds them input through they material body. In such case, the material cannot not exist or else we would not have bodies to do the thinking. Solipsism is thus impossible under Materialism since it would imply that the material world is fake but 'my' or 'your' (depending on the point of view) mind is not; this is impossible since a mind requires a body to exist.

Now will you answer the questions or you need more details?

Finally, I can cut to the chase and explain why I will most likely not comment again on this topic: you (or perhaps Stan if he prefers this thread to feeding trolls) will come back with the argument that our minds are the starting point for knowledge and complain that it is thus there that we need to start the deduction. You will also complain that I assume the non-material does not exist because you don't understand the need to have an ontology grounded in valid assumptions. There will thus be nothing more to talk about and you will claim that my position is absurd, that I believe all that exists is material and so on... the typical examples that show your misunderstanding of the ontology behind materialism.

Stan said...

Materialist,
Materialist,
I could swear that I answered this, but it is not here so I’ll do it again.

You ask,
” Stan, how can you differentiate an objective non-material existence from a subjective non-material existence? All non-material things we agree exist are either material or subjective, human dependent non-material things.”

No I do not agree that such a statement can be valid. Here’s what you present:

(a) All non-material things we agree exist are either material, (internal non-congruity: A cannot be !A),

OR

(b) All non-material things we agree exist are subjective, human dependent, non-material things. (this presumes that String Theory cannot possibly be true, just because: Materialism.)

No, there is no reason to agree with either (a) or (b).

”Merely claiming that the non-material can exist without humans does not prove that it does”.

Entirely correct; and merely claiming that it can’t exist (the assumption which is the only alternative available to Materialism as its premise, since it cannot produce evidence in support of its claim) does not prove that it can’t.

So that statement cuts both ways and therefore has no weight in proving the validity of Materialism.

”The belief in a non-material entity is based on this fallacy, as if not being able to disprove this entity empirically was proof it does exist.”

Not only is this conclusion non sequitur, it is also false on its face. That is based on the presupposition that the premise that non-material existence is necessary, if the universe has a cause is the same thing as making an unsubstantiated claim; it is not the same. It is a claim substantiated with rational, logical, empirically based evidence and logic based deduction, which is ignored in the Materialist argument above.

The same conclusion can be drawn, this time with out fallacy, regarding Materialism:

The Materialist belief that “material existence is all there is”, is merely an unsubstantiated and unsubstantiatable claim based both on:
(a) serial assumption stacking with no basis, either empirically or logically, and,
(b) the ignoring of the rational empirically based premise upon which non-material existence can be deduced.

There is no fallacy in this conclusion – as opposed to the Materialist conclusion which is starkly fallacious and unsupported – and the deductive evidence stands without any Materialistic evidentiary contradiction or empirical evidence to the contrary.

Stan said...

Materialist,
You said, (to Steven):
” You also believe that your mind will survive the death of its companion material body, right? Therefore, you're the one who believes that this material body that you have may be just an illusion, along with the rest of the material world you live in.”

You are attempting to attribute a belief based only on your false logic: there is no necessary reason coupling the premise, survival of the mind, to the proposed conclusion, the body is an illusion. That conclusion is neither necessary nor an expectation of the premise. So your categorical statement, “therefore, you’re the one who believes…” is totally false, being unsupported by the premise because the conclusion is not a necessary result of the premise.

”Your mind is something that exists a priori, without the material world being needed, so it's possible for you to believe that Solipsim is correct: we may all be fictitious characters fed to your consciousness through some undefined means, be it material or not. You also believe that your mind will survive the death of its companion material body, right? Therefore, you're the one who believes that this material body that you have may be just an illusion, along with the rest of the material world you live in.

What you described is not an outcome of solipsism or Radical Skepticism; nor is a necessary conclusion due to the premise of the existence of the non-material realm; it is an extension of basic philosophy regarding the believability of sensory input as the only source of knowledge, and arbitrarily rejecting internal mental deductions as a valid source of knowledge: i.e. basic Materialism in describing the brain.

Materialism is the rejection of any existence which is not material, a priori, and completely without hope of any evidence for support of that rejection. Further there absolutely can be no material evidence for the non-existence of non-material existence. But reading further, that is not what you seem to say.

” On Materialism, the assumption is that the material world is real and serves as a basis for what exists or not.

Yes, it is purely an assumption, not a fact. And let's make it clear that you are declaring the assumption of Material existence is sufficient to determine whether there is or is not a non-material existence.

So you have made an unsupported assumption; that assumption is used to support a Category Error:

It is irrational to propose that the existence of Category [A] proves the non-existence of Category [!A]. That is a rational and mathematical Category Error. (note 1)

” Starting from that material world, we can define this thing we call a 'mind' in a very different way than your Solipsism, oops sorry [insert your worldview here], would ever allow. Minds are what these material things we call humans have.”

Yes, that is a necessary secondary assumption, also with no basis other than the primary assumption, which is demonstrably false. This is a piling up of assumptions and fallacy.

” They use it to represent the world around them conceptually in order to make decisions, predictions and all sort of mental tasks that stem from this desire to understand the real material world that feeds them input through they material body.”

OK, that deviates from the expected chain of thought, which would have continued with the pursuit of the actual source of mind from the minerals of the universe. But let’s go with your statement. Yes, your statement is correct yet incomplete; the mind can also speculate about itself as a non-material manifestation of the material brain. Yet none of this can produce certain knowledge due to the limitations described by Godel’s Theorems.

Going forward,

Stan said...

” In such case, the material cannot not exist or else we would not have bodies to do the thinking.”

That does not follow, unless you can provide better premises. Your claims seem to be thus:

(a) Assume: Material existence exists; therefore, non-material existence does not.

(b) Assume that the mind exists, and therefore due to assumption (a), the mind is also assumed to be material.

(c) The mind is used to investigate the material world by representing it conceptually (this requires that concepts exist and are material manifestations of electrical activity in the brain, another unstated and unsupported assumption being piled on).

(d) therefore [either] the material cannot exist [or] we would not have bodies to do the thinking.

There is no relationship between the premises (which are false) and the conclusion (which does not follow). In fact, the entire argument seems to be within the conclusion;

eliminating the double negation:

If [we have bodies to do the thinking], then [the material realm exists]

A completely uncontroversial statement, and therefore of no value, and unrelated to the premises completely.

I don’t think anybody, ever, makes that argument. It appears to be straw man, created in pursuit of being knocked down. So why not address the actual arguments being made, instead of making up false arguments to attack? But you continue in this vein anyway:

” Solipsism is thus impossible under Materialism since it would imply that the material world is fake but 'my' or 'your' (depending on the point of view) mind is not; this is impossible since a mind requires a body to exist.”

I must have misunderstood your argument above, which I took for a refutation of your opposition. But now you use this fallacy-laden and non sequitur argument for the defense of Materialism from the use of solipsism (which places you in a solo contrary position with a host of Atheist Skeptics):

” Solipsism is thus impossible under Materialism since it would imply that the material world is fake but 'my' or 'your' (depending on the point of view) mind is not; this is impossible since a mind requires a body to exist.”

Whoa! You declare that it is true that “a mind requires a body” in order to prove that “a mind requires a body”, so therefore you cannot be a solipsist and a Materialist?

That is nowhere even close to being a valid statement.

” Now will you answer the questions or you need more details?”

I think that’s been done. If not, then what are the questions?

Moving on:

Stan said...

” Finally, I can cut to the chase and explain why I will most likely not comment again on this topic: you (or perhaps Stan if he prefers this thread to feeding trolls) will come back with the argument that our minds are the starting point for knowledge and complain that it is thus there that we need to start the deduction.”

Wow. Just… Wow. You presume an answer, one which you hate, so you preemptively run for the door? OK then. Just so you know, that is not the basis for rejecting your arguments: the fallacious nature of your arguments form sufficient basis for their rejection. Assuming you haven’t gotten clear through the door and down the street yet.

And yet there is more:

”You will also complain that I assume the non-material does not exist because you don't understand the need to have an ontology grounded in valid assumptions. There will thus be nothing more to talk about…”

Well, yes. Valid assumptions are a necessity in the pursuit of valid conclusions… I never would have guessed that such a statement of logical necessity would need to be made, it is so basic – nor would I have guessed that it would be denied during an argument for the validity of a worldview. Wow.

And yet more, still:

”…and you will claim that my position is absurd,”

I have demonstrated that your specific arguments are false.

”... that I believe all that exists is material and so on.”

It is rational to believe that when you state this:

” On Materialism, the assumption is that the material world is real and serves as a basis for what exists or not”,

…that you mean exactly what you say. If you do not mean what you say, then it would be prudent not to say it.

Materialist said...

"Here’s what you present:

(a) All non-material things we agree exist are either material, (internal non-congruity: A cannot be !A),

OR

(b) All non-material things we agree exist are subjective, human dependent, non-material things. (this presumes that String Theory cannot possibly be true, just because: Materialism.)

No, there is no reason to agree with either (a) or (b)."

(a) is correctly presented but you misunderstood what it means. (a) points to the fact that many things we casually label as non-material are actually just labels for material things or events involving material things

(b) points the fact that non-materials thing are mental construct, hence subjective human thought

Why would string theory justify the existence of something else?

Stan said...

.
Material,
(a)Then you just said that wrong; a non-material thing is not a material thing, period. What you meant is that claims of a non-material nature sometimes turn out to have a material basis. OK; but that's not what you said.

(b)Your claim is incorrect; it is formatted thus:

IF [X is a mental construct] THEN [it is subjective].

Here's why that has been demonstrated false: Pythagorus considered the mental construct of an ideal triangle, none of which exists in nature. On the basis of that mental construct, he formed a theorem. That theorem has been considered as a mental construct for millenia, and the mental construct is proven, time and again in classrooms everywhere, as children record the mental construct proof on lined paper.

Thus the subjective experience has been rendered objectively replicable by observers who did not create the subjective concept.

So the subjective cannot be attacked as remaining subjective forever.

String Theory represents the continuation of that, where mathematical proofs of a non-physical phenomenon are objcetively validated as mathematically correct. Since they predict dimensions outside the physical existence we can sense, they cannot be physically verified or falisfied using scientific technology. But those scientists will not be convinced by your argument for Materialism that those other dimensions cannot exist because: Materialism.

Finally, it can be (and has been) argued that material existence is totally subjective as well. If one wishes to argue such things, then solipsism or phyrronianism results, and no knowlege is possible at all.

Materialist said...

"(a)Then you just said that wrong; a non-material thing is not a material thing, period. What you meant is that claims of a non-material nature sometimes turn out to have a material basis. OK; but that's not what you said."

Getting there but not quite yet.
(a) points to the fact that many things we casually label as non-material are either:
- labels for material things
- events/processes/description/arrangement/... of material things

"(b)Your claim is incorrect; it is formatted thus:
IF [X is a mental construct] THEN [it is subjective]."

Your understanding here is correct. I do mean that non-material things that humans think about are not to be considered as existing, objectively, since they depend on the human doing the thinking to exist. Subjective may not be the best word to convey this idea. Let's try this:

IF [X is a mental construct] THEN [it does not have its own independent existence]."

What we don't agree on is whether or not mental constructs (casually labeled as existing non-material things) exist without human minds and thus be considered existing non-material things. If you can give me 1 example of such non-material thing, I would agree that materialism is proven wrong and non-material things can exists without a dependence on the material world.

Pythagoras' theorem is not such example. It does describe arrangement of material things in a certain pattern.

"ideal triangle, none of which exists in nature"

How could they not exist in nature? Find 3 points forming a 90 degree angle and there you go...

"Thus the subjective experience has been rendered objectively replicable by observers who did not create the subjective concept.
So the subjective cannot be attacked as remaining subjective forever."

What's objective is the principle described by the theorem, which does apply to material things. The things that form a perfect triangle depict the properties described by the theorem. The theorem would not exist without the material framework used to start with.

"String Theory represents the continuation of that, where mathematical proofs of a non-physical phenomenon are objcetively validated as mathematically correct."

What's a non-physical phenomenon?
Next, String Theory, just like any other scientific theory, uses facts about the material world to infer conclusion about that same material world. How do you jump to existing non-material things? How is it even possible with this starting point since these things that String Theory describe necessarily interact somehow with the material world.

Stan said...

Materialist says,
”What we don't agree on is whether or not mental constructs (casually labeled as existing non-material things) exist without human minds and thus be considered existing non-material things. If you can give me 1 example of such non-material thing, I would agree that materialism is proven wrong and non-material things can exists without a dependence on the material world.”

You have loaded the issue with unstated presuppositions, which I will now delineate, along with probable responses in anticipation (based on standard Atheist and Materialist responses):

(a) You are most certainly aware of the deduction of a non-material agent, pre-existing the material universe, which effected the creation of the universe.

(b) You will very likely claim the need for material evidence for this, in the full knowledge that it is impossible due to the Category Error.

(c) Failing that, you will demand other proof, while avoiding any material evidence which contradicts the claim.

(d) Therefore, having no evidence to the contrary, and declining to find errors in the deduction, you will deny that you have responsibility to address any issue that doesn’t satisfy your “disbelief”, with no response to any request for a list of what would, in fact, satisfy your disbelief.

”Pythagoras' theorem is not such example. It does describe arrangement of material things in a certain pattern.’

It most certainly does not. It describes a hypothetical ideal that is not dependent upon any material thing whatsoever. That claim is outrageous, and has to be ideologically motivated because it is completely without rational content. There is no material content in the Pythagorean Theorem. None.

”How could they not exist in nature? Find 3 points forming a 90 degree angle and there you go...”

How do you make perfectly straight lines in nature, lines without any Z dimension, since even the tiniest particle has three dimensions? What is the finest resolution possible for measuring angles? Do you ever question the things you say before you say them? Or are you not aware of physical limitations which inhere to everything physical?

And yet you continue with more absurdity:

”"Thus the subjective experience has been rendered objectively replicable by observers who did not create the subjective concept.

So the subjective cannot be attacked as remaining subjective forever."

What's objective is the principle described by the theorem, which does apply to material things.


That is perfectly beside the point and proves nothing. It is a logical deviation fallacy in the following regard: you have said that that the non-material principle applies to material things… AS IF that proves that the principle itself is material. That is completely both (a) non sequitur, and (b)fails basic set theory:

IF [X exists] AND [Y conforms to X], THEN [X is a subset of Y].

This is false because: Y is a subset of X, not the other way around.

Stan said...

”The things that form a perfect triangle depict the properties described by the theorem. The theorem would not exist without the material framework used to start with.”

Already proven false, above.

”"String Theory represents the continuation of that, where mathematical proofs of a non-physical phenomenon are objcetively validated as mathematically correct."

What's a non-physical phenomenon?”


Faux ignorance. (added later: maybe not) But I’m trying to be nice. The effecting of the material universe was a non-physical phenomenon – defined as such by Hawking/Penrose, because material mass/energy, space/time of our universe did not and could not exist before it began to exist.

You cannot avoid by feigning ignorance of what is 7th grade science. (again written later: maybe it's not feigning).

”Next, String Theory, just like any other scientific theory, uses facts about the material world to infer conclusion about that same material world.”

Really? Really? Your ignorance -yet conclusively stated - is placing you squarely into the arena of those not worth holding discussions with. You have no clue about the things which you claim as fact, including and especially String theory.

”How do you jump to existing non-material things? How is it even possible with this starting point since these things that String Theory describe necessarily interact somehow with the material world.”

See? You want me to believe that you know anything at all about String Theory? This is purely absurd. When you make these claims it really shows your stuff and it ain't pretty.

Still trying to be nice (it's hard at the moment)... look up M-theory. Look up probability waves. Look up Hawking/Penrose. Look up disciplined deduction vs ideological bushwah.

Materialist said...

"(a) You are most certainly aware of the deduction of a non-material agent, pre-existing the material universe, which effected the creation of the universe."

No, never heard a valid deduction of that nature.

"(b) You will very likely claim the need for material evidence for this, in the full knowledge that it is impossible due to the Category Error."

Evidence represents a body of knowledge, it is necessarily non-material. What the evidence points to can be more non-material things, such as ideas, deductions, explanations, conclusions, facts, or material things, such as scientific experiments, material things, recordings, etc...

An example of a typical Category error would be asking for proof of abiogenesis when discussing evolution. Ever heard that one?

"(c) Failing that, you will demand other proof, while avoiding any material evidence which contradicts the claim."

What proof, what evidence, what claim?

"(d) Therefore, having no evidence to the contrary, and declining to find errors in the deduction, you will deny that you have responsibility to address any issue that doesn’t satisfy your “disbelief”, with no response to any request for a list of what would, in fact, satisfy your disbelief."

I think I am starting to understand what's going on, it's quite interesting. You are pre-emptively having a debate with yourself in your head before you even know the full extent of my positions and beliefs just because I picked the nickname 'Materialist' and wrote a few sentences about the topic.

So no matter what I say, it will be classified in your mind as the above?
We'll see...

"[Pythagoras' theorem] describes a hypothetical ideal that is not dependent upon any material thing whatsoever. There is no material content in the Pythagorean Theorem. None."

Hypothetical idea, yes. Not dependent upon any material thing, no.
How can you talk about Pythagorean Theorem without invoking a material thing?

"How do you make perfectly straight lines in nature, lines without any Z dimension, since even the tiniest particle has three dimensions? What is the finest resolution possible for measuring angles? are you not aware of physical limitations which inhere to everything physical?"

Triangles are models; they describe things we see in reality in a simpler way than they really are, to ease processing. We don't need to have a physical straight line in nature. We just need 3 points, anywhere, and we have a triangle, since the imaginary line connecting them necessarily forms a triangle. We also don't need to measure the angle to be exactly 90 degrees. Same thing here: we model reality to make it easier to process. So if we have 3 points that look close to 90 degrees, we can create a model, on a sheet of paper for example, so represent these 3 points. The approximation will make it much easier to work than if we were to keep the exact measure.

Therefore, the "physical limitations which inhere to everything physical" is actually part of the reason why Pythagoras' theorem is not a valid example of an existing non-material thing. We use Pythagoras' theorem to describe material things; it is nothing more than a conceptual representation of that material world we live in. The theorem exists only because we, humans, exist and came up with it. It is not an example of an existing non-material thing that exists outside human minds.

Materialist said...

Your last answer probably still applies here:

"It is a logical deviation fallacy in the following regard: you have said that that the non-material principle applies to material things… AS IF that proves that the principle itself is material. That is completely both (a) non sequitur, and (b)fails basic set theory:

IF [X exists] AND [Y conforms to X], THEN [X is a subset of Y].

This is false because: Y is a subset of X, not the other way around."

The principle is what it is. It is not what it is not. The principle describes things. The principle is not human-dependent. Even if no humans were to do the thinking, the principle would still describe these things. The question is: is this an example of a non-material existing thing, something non-material that would exist even without human minds around?

No, because it's not a 'thing'. It's a principle. That's what it is, it describes things. Yes, it is non-material, but it does not exist as an independent non-material thing either. It relies on other things to exist and depict the properties that the principle lists. That's why this is true:

The things that form a perfect triangle depict the properties described by the theorem. The theorem would not exist without the material framework used to start with.

" What's a non-physical phenomenon?”

Faux ignorance."

No. I really don't know what this means in general, or what you mean specifically.

"The effecting of the material universe was a non-physical phenomenon – defined as such by Hawking/Penrose, because material mass/energy, space/time of our universe did not and could not exist before it began to exist."

Word salad; I need to dissect.

"The effecting of the material universe was..."

The 'effecting' here, I suppose, refers to the material universe being 'caused' by something. Something did something and the 'effect' of doing something was the universe. That action of that something is what you label the 'effecting'. Therefore, you are essentially saying:

"The universe was caused by something. That something did something, an action, to cause the universe to exist. The effect of that action was the universe itself. That action was..."

"...was a non-physical phenomenon because material mass/energy, space/time of our universe did not and could not exist before it began to exist"

The end of the sentence is a logical tautology. (A) did not and could not exist before (A) began to exist.
Re-using that tautology:

"The effecting of physical (A) was a non-physical phenomenon because (A) did not and could not exist before (A) began to exist"

You offered nothing else; what was avoided was nothing else but insults. If you want to refer to Hawkins/Penrose or any other scientists, or any scientific discovery, quote or explain what you mean. You just asserted that you are right because of your understanding, which you do not share... 'String Theory' proves me right is not a valid argument.

Stan said...

Materialist:
This conversation has now turned on your flip-flopping of postitions to the point where it is so absurd that I will point to just two instances, either of which points to “troll”:

1. ”Evidence represents a body of knowledge, it is necessarily non-material. What the evidence points to can be more non-material things, such as ideas, deductions, explanations, conclusions, facts, or material things, such as scientific experiments, material things, recordings, etc...”

How much has gone awry in this single statement. Your position is that non-material things don’t exist. But ‘evidence’ exists as non-material (?) and points to “more non-material ‘things’”(?)

Thus evidence cannot exist under your denialism, because it is non-material? Really? The conversation has stepped into the abyss, irretrievably.

”An example of a typical Category error would be asking for proof of abiogenesis when discussing evolution. Ever heard that one?”

Only in defense of the irrational position that first life cannot be part of evolution because first life did not evolve from other life… it EVOLVED from minerals. This is a necessary Materialist principle and is thus included in the category: Evolution. However, it is an unsupportable claim which is not supported by any known nature of materials. Thus, evolution-of-just-living-things is a sub-category of general evolution, despite denials. So ignoring abiogenesis is an abdication of part of evolution, because it contains a rational defeater when it is included.

Further, if a part of category[ E ] is false, then all of category [ E ] has no remaining truth value. Denial is outside of the principles of mathematics and logic.

In fact, that position is a clear indication of the adherence to Materialism based on selective information, while denying specific defeaters must be addressed. Purely emotional response.

2. ”The principle is what it is. It is not what it is not. The principle describes things. The principle is not human-dependent. Even if no humans were to do the thinking, the principle would still describe these things. The question is: is this an example of a non-material existing thing, something non-material that would exist even without human minds around?

No, because it's not a 'thing'. It's a principle. That's what it is, it describes things. Yes, it is non-material, but it does not exist as an independent non-material thing either. It relies on other things to exist and depict the properties that the principle lists. That's why this is true:

The things that form a perfect triangle depict the properties described by the theorem. The theorem would not exist without the material framework used to start with.”


This sort of denialism is so fundamentally irrational that it cannot serve as a basis for conversation, much less continuing one. But before I put this conversation out of its misery, I will make this one last attempt:

Stan said...

First: A theoretical principle does NOT depend upon physical existence in the sense that it could not exist otherwise. Mathematical transforms from one theoretical space to another theoretical space do not depend in any manner for those spaces to exist as physical entities. (I've said this before, but it is ignored in the pursuit of ideological denial). The fact that theoretical constructs can ultimately be useful for the manipulation of understanding material things does not mean that they exist in the material thing, or that they are material in any way.

This is only deniable by disregarding the nature of higher mathematics.

Second: your following statement from above demonstrates perfect obtuseness: ”It is not a ‘thing’” Of course it is not a ‘thing’ (which to you means "material"); it is a non-material, intelligible organizing function endowed to matter, which is a knowable principle, which does not arise out of material ‘things’, requires no thing for its existence including prior to the existence of matter, and yet could not exist unless it were organized itself into the operating principle by an intelligent agent.

The discussion is specifically about “not-things” of a material nature: non-material existence which involves non-material existence – a tautological necessity.

At one point you claim the existence of non-material evidence; but that is inverted in your prior and subsequent claims, indicating flip-flopping when it seems advantageous to you. That defies logic and renders conversation with you to be impossible logically, and therefore completely unnecessary.

Third: Obtuseness just for obtuseness’ sake is being a troll; there have been many here lately. My tolerance is down to nil, after giving them sufficient opportunity to change into non-obtuse behaviors.

Materialist said...

Thanks for your time. Your failed attempt at justifying the existence of non-material existence outside human minds is duly noted. Mathematics is the best you could come up with? No worries if you are not interested in discussing that.

Stan said...

What is mildly interesting is the mental contortions that are gone through to avoid the obvious, which in your case included double inversions in a single comment. There is no justifiable evidence that Materialism is anything other than mere denialism. It cannot be proven materially, nor can it be proven logically. But it can be disproven logically. So that is your choice.